Who Are The Sons Of God In Genesis 6?

 (Genesis 6:1-2)"When man began to multiply on the face of the land and daughters were born to them, the sons of God saw that the daughters of man were attractive.  And they took as their wives any they chose." (ESV) 

There are three main views regarding the identity of the sons of God in this passage.  The first view holds that the sons of God were angels.  The second view sees them as human rulers, and the third view believes them to be the righteous line of Seth.  

The view that the sons of God are angels is held by many, but angels do not marry and are not sexual(Matthew 22:30).  Also the flood was God's judgment against humans and not angels.  John Calvin called this view absurd.  

The view that the sons of God refers to human rulers has been held by some but there seems to be little evidence for it.  Also it does not seem to fit the context very well.  

The view that the sons of God refers to the godly line of Seth was held by Augustine, Martin Luther, and John Calvin.  In this view the daughters of man refers to the wicked line of Cain.  Therefore the righteous line of Seth intermarried with the ungodly line of Cain.  This resulted in great wickedness on the earth.  Genesis 4 and 5 contrast the lines of Cain and Seth.  Then Genesis 6 shows the result when the two lines intermarry.  This view best fits the context.      

What About The Ending Of Mark's Gospel?

 Bible readers will notice that Mark 16:9-20 in most translations has brackets around it, along with a note saying some early manuscripts do not include 16:9-20.  So is Mark 16:9-20 (the long ending) part of the original Gospel of Mark?  

There are three options with the ending of Mark's Gospel.  The first option is that 16:9-20 is authentic and part of the original.  The second option is that Mark ended his Gospel at 16:8.  The third option is that the original ending of Mark has been lost.  

Mark 16:9-20 is found in most of the Greek manuscripts, all except two.  The two manuscripts that do not contain it are also our earliest copies of Mark 16 (Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Vaticanus) both of which date to around A.D. 350.  These two manuscripts are considered to be very reliable overall.  Also some manuscripts that do contain 16:9-20 have notes stating that some manuscripts of Mark end at 16:8.  

Eusebius (A.D. 260-339) states that most of the manuscripts that he has of Mark' Gospel end at 16:8.  Jerome (A.D. 347-420) also says that most of the manuscripts do not contain 16:9-20.  But on the other hand Irenaeus (A.D. 130-202) seems to quote from Mark 16:9-20.  

Mark 16:9-20 does not seem to fit with 16:1-8.  But Mark ending his Gospel at 16:8 would seem to be an unusual and abrupt ending, that does not contain resurrection appearances, although the resurrection is mentioned in 16:6.  It seems unlikely that the original ending of Mark has been lost.  

The issue of the ending of Mark's Gospel is complex and perplexing.   

How Tall Was Goliath?

 Goliath was a champion of the Philistines who fought against the army of Israel.  David defeated Goliath with a sling and a stone (1 Samuel 17:50).  

(1 Samuel 17:4)"And there came out from the camp of the Philistines a champion named Goliath of Gath, whose height was six cubits and a span." (ESV) 

A cubit was about 18 inches and a span was about 9 inches.  The Old Testament manuscripts differ on the height of Goliath.  The Masoretic Text (Hebrew text) has six cubits and a span (9ft. 9in.) and this is followed by most translations (ESV,LSB,NIV,CSB,NKJV).  On the other hand, the Septuagint (Greek translation of the Old Testament), a Dead Sea Scroll (Qumran manuscript), and Josephus (Jewish historian) say Goliath was four cubits and a span (6ft. 9in.) and this is followed by the NRSV and NET.   

Why Is John 5:4 Missing From My Bible?

 (John 5:3b-4)"waiting for the moving of the water.  For an angel went down at a certain time into the pool and stirred up the water; then whoever stepped in first, after the stirring of the water, was made well of whatever disease he had." (NKJV) 

Many modern translations do not include the end of John 5:3 and all of John 5:4.  This verse is included in the KJV and the NKJV, while the LSB and NASB 1995 include it but put it in brackets.  Most translations such as the ESV, NIV, and CSB do not include it in the text, instead they have it in a footnote.  So what is going on here?  

The New Testament was originally written in Greek.  The KJV and NKJV use a Greek text known as the Textus Receptus (received text).  The Textus Receptus is mainly based on late Greek manuscripts and sometimes on the Latin Vulgate.  

On the other hand most modern translations are based on what is called the critical text.  It takes into account earlier Greek manuscripts which were not available to the King James translators in 1611.  

The earliest Greek manuscript to contain John 5:4 is Codex Alexandrinus (5th century).  The earlier Greek manuscripts do not include this verse.  They include P66 (around A.D. 175), P75 (around A.D. 200), Codex Sinaiticus (4th century), and Codex Vaticanus (4th century).  

It seems that John 5:4 may have been an explanatory note added by a scribe, that was later included in the text of the manuscripts by a copyist who mistakenly thought it belonged there.   

Did Jesus Teach That The Earth Is Flat?

 (Mark 13:27)"And then he will send out the angels and gather his elect from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of heaven." (ESV) 

Some have tried to use this verse as evidence that the Bible teaches a flat earth.  But Jesus is obviously using symbolic language to say he will gather his elect from everywhere.  Jesus has perfect knowledge of the earth, he created it (John 1:1-3). 

Will You Have A Mansion In Heaven?

(John 14:2)"In my Father's house are many mansions; if it were no so, I would have told you.  I go to prepare a place for you." (KJV) 

(John 14:2)"In my Father's house are many rooms.  If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you?" (ESV) 

The King James Version has "many mansions" while the ESV has "many rooms." Most modern translations have either rooms or dwelling places.  Does saying in a house are many mansions even make sense in modern English?  

In 1611 when the King James Version was originally done, the word mansions could actually mean something like rooms.  So rooms or dwelling places is actually the best translation.  It is worth noting that the Geneva Bible which preceded the King James Version, had dwelling places.  

My Father's house refers to heaven and there will be plenty of room for God's people there. When Jesus says that he goes to prepare a place for you, he probably does not mean it in a literal sense.  The Lord likely means that through his death and resurrection, he prepares a place for us in heaven.    

70 Or 75? (Genesis 46:27 & Acts 7:14)

So how many people went down to Egypt with Jacob?  Genesis 46:27 has the number at 70 while Acts 7:14 has the number at 75.  

In Acts 14:7 Stephen is making his speech before the council and he lists the number of people as 75.  Stephen is actually quoting from the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Old Testament or Hebrew Bible) which has the number as 75 in Genesis 46:27.  On the other hand the Masoretic text (Hebrew text) has the number as 70 in Genesis 46:27.  

A possible explanation for the two different numbers is that the Septuagint includes five additional descendants of Joseph who were born in Egypt.  The five additional people would be two sons of Manasseh, two sons of Ephraim, and a grandson of Ephraim.  

Another possible explanation for the different numbers is that 75 people went down to Egypt but five died before they met with Joseph.  The difference in the numbers would be between those who left for Egypt and those who made it to meet with Joseph.